Test online for Deck department, Management level, Oil Tanker (CES v6.0)
Test results
The test consisted of 80 random questions.
Total questions on this topic: 301
Total questions on this topic: 301
Your result: 90%
Right answers:
1
Your vessel is in an area of restricted visibility. You hear this sound signal. What does it mean?
Your answer is correct:
That there is a vessel in distress nearby.2
When a Master takes the leadership in approaching a problem, Must his first action be a decision that will directly solve the problem?
Your answer is correct:
Not necessary, he shall use all available resources. He should resist the temptation to step in and do it all by himself.3
When a vessel arrives at a port to pick up a pilot and enter harbour, there should be someone required to stand by the anchor forward. How should the anchor be prepared and ready?
Your answer is correct:
The brake securely applied, all cement/covering into the chain locker and securing arrangements from windlass removed. The guillotine can remain for removal when ready.4
Which of the following requirements to ships stability for normal operation corresponds to present regulations? (NSCL 4/12.2).
Your answer is correct:
The ship is loaded in such a manner that adequate stability is achieved in all loading condition.5
That stage of the discharging operation on an oil tanker when the last remaining contents of a tank or line are being pumped out is called:
Your answer is correct:
Stripping.6
Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel’s structural strength?
Your answer is correct:
The master.7
The compensation payment by the charterer that is due when a vessel is unable to load/discharge her cargo within the allowed and contracted time is referred to as:
Your answer is correct:
Demurrage.8
A ship in distress should transmit the appropriate alarm signal followed by the distress call and message on one or all of the international distress frequencies. Which of frequencies is in accordance with the present recommendations?
Your answer is correct:
500 kHz, 2 182 kHz and 156,8 MHz.9
The emergency fire pump is in accordance with good seamanship and precautionary routines run and tested weekly. Routine checks and maintenance are normally carried out by dedicated personnel. To ensure safe and appropriate operation of the pump, would you consider it beneficial that the same dedicated personnel operate the pump in emergencies?
Your answer is correct:
In case of accidents, it is important that a wide range of personnel must be permitted and trained to operate the pump.10
If your chemical tanker is equipped with high velocity venting valves, at what minimum height above the weather deck or catwalk should they be installed?
Your answer is correct:
3 metres.11
An Oil tanker experiences large bending moments and therefore the deck scantlings must be maintained within “x” length amidships, where “x” is:
Your answer is correct:
0,4 Length.12
After efficient scrubbing of inert flue gas what would be the concentration of sulphur dioxide be:
Your answer is correct:
50 ppm.13
For how long time should a COSPAS-SARSAT Epirb be able to operate on its batteries?
Your answer is correct:
48 hours.14
The prescribed periodic tests of the radio set must be entered in:
Your answer is correct:
Radio Log.15
With reference to oil cargo characteristics, “cloud point” is:
Your answer is correct:
The temperature at which a liquid hydrocarbon begins to congeal and take on a cloudy appearance, due to the bonding of constituent paraffin compounds.16
What is the purpose of the Ship Security Plan?
Your answer is correct:
Protect your ship from risks posed by security threats or incidents.17
Where can specific information be found regarding the action to take in the event of an oil spill while discharging at a US port?
Your answer is correct:
Vessel Response Plan.18
Which personnel must undergo familiarization training on board?
Your answer is correct:
Everyone.19
If the wind speed on a vessel doubles, by approximately how much will the force from it rise?
Your answer is correct:
The force will be Quadrupled.20
Which of the following information shall be specified by the muster list?
Your answer is correct:
Action to be taken by crew and passengers.21
What is the probable cause of an error in the position shown on a GPS receiver set into “2D” fixing?
Your answer is correct:
Incorrect height of the antenna set into the receiver.22
What is to be considered when deciding the position of the accommodation on an oil tanker?
Your answer is correct:
A single failure of deck or bulkhead shall not allow fumes into the accommodation spaces.23
After having discovered a small leak of oil at the ships manifold during discharge, you would:
Your answer is correct:
Notify the Officer in charge of the operation.24
Notification logging procedures (OPA-90):
Your answer is correct:
Every report or message must be logged including time and date.25
Chemical tankers of 20 000 tonnes DWT or above, with a keel laid on or after 1st July 1986, when carrying flammable products with a flashpoint not exceeding 60 °C, such as those listed in chapters 17 and 18 of the International Bulk Chemical Code, are exempt from the requirement to be fitted with and use an inert gas plant provided certain conditions are met. Which of the following is a summary of those conditions?
Your answer is correct:
The cargo tank does not exceed 3 000 cubic metres capacity/each tank washing machine nozzle does not exceed 17,5 cubic metres per hour delivery rate/the total wash water input to the tank from all tank washing machines does not exceed 110 cubic metres per hour.26
Referring to the SOLAS convention, how often should a crew member on a cargo ship participate in one abandon ship drill and one fire drill?
Your answer is correct:
Monthly.27
What is the meaning of this symbol?
Your answer is correct:
Lifeboat.28
Prior to discharging cargo from an oil tanker, “line displacement” is usually conducted to:
Your answer is correct:
Verify the pipeline contents with previous grade have been replaced.29
The ID of an Inmarsat-M station on board starts with:
Your answer is correct:
6.30
What are the three diameters of fire hoses most commonly found on ships?
Your answer is correct:
25, 45 or 70 mm.31
As per the IMDG Code, an “article” is referred to as:
Your answer is correct:
A device that contains a dangerous substance or mixture of substances.32
Which one of the following items has to be included in an abandon ship drill according to SOLAS regulations?
Your answer is correct:
Checking that life-jackets are correctly donned.33
What will you bring in a lifeboat if the ship is abondoned?
Your answer is correct:
Warm clothes, blankets and lifevests.34
Which Convention first placed on the shipowner an obligation to exercise due diligence to make a ship seaworthy, requiring him “before and at the beginning of a voyage… to….make the ship seaworthy … and … make the holds … and all other parts of the vessel in which goods are carried, fit and safe for their reception, carriage and preservation”?
Your answer is correct:
The Hague-Visby Rules.35
As a result of being in collision with your vessel, the other vessel involved is on fire. What are your responsibilities?
Your answer is correct:
The other vessel is in distress and if possible I will render assistance.36
Depending on the API, an error measurement of 0,1 degree Fahrenheit in a tank containing 300 000 barrels of oil will result in which of the following volumes?
Your answer is correct:
300 barrels.37
Which of the following two digits codes is used to obtain medical advice?
Your answer is correct:
32.38
Under most circumstances, how will communication be carried out between a ship and a SAR helicopter?
Your answer is correct:
On VHF Ch. 16.39
The DoS addresses the responsibility for the security of the water around the ship and the verification of increased threat levels.
Your answer is correct:
True.40
Measuring the ullage at a cargo tank would mean:
Correct answer:
Measuring the distance from the surface of the cargo to the ullage reference point.Your Answer:
Measuring the distance from the bottom of the tank to the ullage reference point.41
Which of the following is the correct minimum carriage requirement for a ship of more than 300 gross tons and operating in area A1:
Your answer is correct:
1 VHF RT + DSC + DSC watch receiver – 1 or 2 SART – 1 NAVTEX or 1 EGC receiver – 2 or 3 VHF portable – 1 EPIRB.42
What do you understand by the term “Risk Assessment”, and how would this be carried out on board?
Your answer is correct:
Identify the hazards, quantify the risks, put control measures in place, monitor the work activity and review.43
As far as possible, all engines in lifeboats and rescue boats should be run:
Your answer is correct:
For a total period of not less than 5 minutes every month.44
According to the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions and the illustrated lights, what type of vessel is this and from what direction is it viewed?
Your answer is correct:
This is a vessel engaged in fishing other than trawling, making way through the water, with outlying gear extending more than 150 m in the direction of the all-round white light. Looking at its port side.45
Give the meaning of the following symbol:
Your answer is correct:
Secondary means of escape.46
What are the conditions that influence the efforts for organising the fire fighting?
Your answer is correct:
Where the fire breaks out, how many fire teams are available, the strength of the fire, the ships mobility, what is burning and communication.47
Which of these statements about drug smuggling is true?
Your answer is correct:
The risks to ships are not restricted to specific areas or trading routes.48
A tanker in ballast, having recently left the discharge port is involved in a collision. The two vessels are still interlocked after the collision and a survey of the ships gives all crew members are safe and the damage is focussed to the vicinity of the impact. What should be the greatest concern at this time?
Your answer is correct:
The ships moving together in the swell/seaway will cause a spark and consequently an explosion.49
When planning to cross an ocean, is it always best to use great circle sailing?
Your answer is correct:
No – because there could be environmental or regulatory restrictions.50
Within the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System, an “overboard discharge control” is defined as:
Your answer is correct:
A device which automatically initiates the sequence to stop the overboard discharge of the effluent in alarm conditions and prevents the discharge throughout the period the alarm prevails.51
The calibration of the ODME is carried with the use of:
Your answer is correct:
Fresh water.52
How many rocket parachute flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS B pack?
Correct answer:
2.Your Answer:
6.53
When a message is sent by the Inmarsat-C installation to an Internet e-mail address, the land charge is:
Your answer is correct:
Independent of the destination.54
If one requires medical advice by means of an Inmarsat-C terminal one should use the following address:
Correct answer:
32.Your Answer:
Radiomedical.55
In open water, you see a collision between two other ships. What immediate action should you take?
Your answer is correct:
Nothing, proceed on passage unless they are in distress.56
At what minimum height above sea level must a SART transponder be mounted?
Your answer is correct:
1 metre.57
What is the meaning of the term “Steady as she goes” when acting as helmsman?
Your answer is correct:
While altering the ships head, the instruction “steady as she goes” means reduce the ships swing as rapidly as possible and steady on present course.58
The “dew point” of a liquid chemical is often quoted in the documentation relating to its loading and carriage. Which of the following is a definition of “dew point”?
Your answer is correct:
The temperature at which a gas is saturated with respect to a condensable component, as in operational terms is seen at the point when air is saturated with moisture.59
Why should Ground Stabilised True Motion display mode be avoided when using the ARPA for anti-collision purposes?
Your answer is correct:
The collision regulations are based on ship courses through the water.60
Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel’s structural strength?
Your answer is correct:
The Master.61
A DSC distress alert is received. The message states that communication by radiotelex is preferred. One preferably uses:
Your answer is correct:
FEC mode.62
At present the MF/HF transmitter often has an automatic aerial turning unit. Should this fail:
Correct answer:
It’s always possible to put the turning unit in a fixed position, so the MF distress frequencies can still be used.Your Answer:
The transmitter will automatically keep operating on the MF and HF frequencies.63
Part way through a profiling interview with a supplier, the package the individual is carrying arouses your suspicion. What do you do?
Correct answer:
Discreetly inform someone of your suspicions so he or she can get assistance.Your Answer:
Confront the individual and demand that he open the package.64
If the relief for the bridge lookout does not appear at the end of the watch, when required, what should be the actions of the existing lookout?
Your answer is correct:
He should inform the Officer of the Watch and wait for instructions.65
Inmarsat Telex Service code “31” can be used:
Your answer is correct:
To ask for maritime inquiries.66
A vessel has been in involved in a collision. Which procedure should happen immediately?
Your answer is correct:
There is assessment of the damage stability.67
What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an oil-spill on the water?
Your answer is correct:
The chemicals make it difficult to remove the oil from the water.68
What immediate action should be taken if a ship unexpectedly runs aground and stops?
Your answer is correct:
Stop engine(s).69
Which of the following two digits codes is used to obtain medical advice?
Your answer is correct:
32.70
Via Inmarsat-C a message is sent to an Inmarsat-C mailbox with a positive delivery notification (PDN). The ground station will:
Correct answer:
Send a PDN, if the message has arrived in the mailbox.Your Answer:
Send a PDN, as soon as the message is collected from the mailbox.71
Which word will precede a routine message?
Correct answer:
No specific word will precede a routine message.Your Answer:
ROUTINE.72
At what calendar interval must lifting appliances on board a vessel be suitably tested by a competent person?
Your answer is correct:
5 years.73
The emergency battery of a GMDSS portophone:
Your answer is correct:
Must be replaced before the expiry date is exceeded.74
According to the IAMSAR Manual, what is the expected survival time for a person in water of 4-10 °C, without special protective clothing?
Your answer is correct:
Less than 3 hours.75
For a ship operating or calling in US waters, COTP can request (OPA-90):
Your answer is correct:
Unannounced drills at any time.76
During the anchoring procedure, what would the 2nd Officer understand by the following request from the bridge, “How is the chain”?
Your answer is correct:
The bridge would like to know the direction of the anchor cable from the hawse pipe.77
Substances, materials and articles shall be stowed as indicated in the Dangerous Goods List of the IMDG Code, in accordance with a series of stowage categories. How are those categories designated?
Correct answer:
5 categories, labelled A-E.Your Answer:
Three categories, numbered I, II, III.78
A vessel berths at two different jetties under the influence of a 1 knot beam current. At the first jetty the ship has an underkeel clearance of 5 times the draught and at the second the underkeel clearance is only 0,5 times the draught. If the current exerted a force of 50 tonnes on the ship at the first jetty, what would be the approximate force exerted at the second if the draught is the same?
Your answer is correct:
150 tonnes.79
In which ways is heat transmitted?
Your answer is correct:
Conduction, convection and radiation.80