Test online for seamans about Deck department, Management level, Supply Platform (CES v6.0)

Test results

The test consisted of 80 random questions.
Total questions on this topic: 95
Your result: 69%
Right answers:
1

What action should be taken by the Officer of the Watch if someone reports a fire to them?

Your answer is correct:

Sound the Fire Alarm.
2

Which organization or administration is responsible for surveys and inspections of ships, and the issue of Safety Certificates?

Correct answer:

Government Authorities of the Flag State.

Your Answer:

Ships Classification Associations (Lloyd’s, American Bureau of Shipping, The Norwegian Veritas, Germanische Lloyd’s, etc).
3

When using an ENC chart to passage planning, why should a scale at or near its compilation scale always be used?

Your answer is correct:

The chart detail is correct for its usage band.
4

With help of DSC a ship wants to contact a coast-station to have a question for telephone call. One has to choose from the following DSC-frequencies:

Correct answer:

TX: 8 415,0 kHz. RX: 8 436,5 kHz.

Your Answer:

TX: 8 436,5 kHz. RX: 8 436,5 kHz.
5

During the survey of Long Range Identification and Tracking (LRIT) equipment, which document must be available to the surveyor to demonstrate compliance with SOLAS?

Your answer is correct:

A report giving the result of the Conformance Test issued by an Application Service Provider on behalf of an Administration.
6

A “Standard Format for Search and Rescue Situation Reports” (SITREPs) should be used by vessels in distress. The SITREP can be compiled as a short form (urgent essential details). Which of the following information shall be included when using the “short form”?

Your answer is correct:

Weather on-scene.
7

A tug is connected to the bow of a vessel. Will the force exerted by it be the same at any ahead speed?

Correct answer:

No, on the bow the tug uses power to run with the vessel, which reduces the available power on the towline.

Your Answer:

No, when the ahead speed of the ship increases the force exerted by the tug will also increase.
8

Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of life-saving appliances correspond to present regulations?

Your answer is correct:

Instructions for onboard maintenance of life-saving appliances in accordance with the regulations shall be provided.
9

On a platform supply vessel, what should happen with dangerous cargo?

Your answer is correct:

It should be manifested and in a marked container.
10

What immediate action should be taken if a ship unexpectedly runs aground and stops?

Your answer is correct:

Stop engine(s).
11

Which class of emission is used for VHF DSC transmissions?

Correct answer:

G2B.

Your Answer:

F1B.
12

In a distress situation and immediately after the distress signal has been sounded, what is the next action to be taken by the Chief Officer on duty?

Your answer is correct:

Use the intercom to inform crew and passengers of the reason for the alarm.
13

A vessel has been in involved in a collision. Which procedure should happen immediately?

Your answer is correct:

There is assessment of the damage stability.
14

If W = Displacement, L = length, B = Breadth, D = depth of vessel, Cb = Block Coefficient, Cw = Coefficient of Waterplane, RD = Relative Density, then:

Your answer is correct:

W = L×B×D×Cb/RD.
15

The MF/HF-transceiver on board is tuned to the assigned frequency of a station. To make this connection the following mode is used:

Correct answer:

J3E.

Your Answer:

J2B.
16

The majority of conventions adopted under the auspices of IMO fall into which of the three main categories:

Your answer is correct:

Maritime Safety, Prevention of Marine pollution, Liability and compensation.
17

During the survey of Long Range Identification and Tracking (LRIT) equipment, which document must be available to the surveyor to demonstrate compliance with SOLAS?

Your answer is correct:

A report giving the result of the Conformance Test issued by an Application Service Provider on behalf of an Administration.
18

Which option correctly completes the following statement? During the design of a DP vessel, the FMEA process…

Correct answer:

Is used to improve the reliability of the various systems.

Your Answer:

Is useful for looking at planned maintenance.
19

When a message is sent by the INMARSAT-C installation to an Internet e-mail address, the land charge is:

Correct answer:

Independent of the destination.

Your Answer:

Dependent on the “chargeband”.
20

By the degree of selectivity of a receiver is meant:

Correct answer:

Ability to make weak stations audible.

Your Answer:

Ability to distinguish weak stations from adjacent stronger stations.
21

Which of the following two digits codes is used to obtain maritime assistance?

Correct answer:

39.

Your Answer:

32.
22

What is meant by the “level” of system failure on a DP vessel?

Correct answer:

It is failure of either a component, a supporting piece of equipment or the entire system.

Your Answer:

It is a measure of how far a single failure will affect the position keeping ability of a vessel.
23

A satellite receives the transmissions of the 406 MHz Cospas-Sarsat EPIRB. The transmissions of the EPIRB will be:

Correct answer:

Always passed on to a LUT.

Your Answer:

Exclusively passed on to a LUT only between 70 degrees N and 70 degrees S.
24

What is the correct setting of the “Anti sea clutter” control on the radar?

Your answer is correct:

A few sea returns remaining around the own-ship position.
25

As per the the IMDG Code, an “article” is referred to as:

Correct answer:

A device that contains a dangerous substance or mixture of substances.

Your Answer:

A form that contains important information about a hazardous substance.
26

In open water, you see a collision between two other ships. What immediate action should you take?

Your answer is correct:

Nothing, proceed on passage unless they are in distress.
27

Which of the following is a Accounting Authority Identification Code?

Correct answer:

FR01.

Your Answer:

F1B.
28

If proving trials show that the FMEA report is incorrect for a DP vessel, what action should be taken?

Your answer is correct:

The FMEA should be changed to reflect reality.
29

The offshore vessel inspection database (OVID) used for offshore vessel inspection reports is hosted by which organisation? Select the ONE correct answer.

Your answer is correct:

The Oil Companies International Marine Forum.
30

On area A3 the function “Transmission and reception of on scene communications” is mainly based on:

Correct answer:

The use of HF/MF and/or VHF R/T and/or INMARSAT-C.

Your Answer:

The use of VHF DSC.
31

For how long time should a VHF survival craft transceiver be able to operate on its batteries?

Correct answer:

8 hours.

Your Answer:

24 hours.
32

A rocket parachute flare reaches an altitude of:

Correct answer:

Not less than 300 m.

Your Answer:

Not less than 180 m.
33

For the same vessel and the same rudder angle, is the diameter of the turning circle completed at full ahead smaller than one completed at half ahead?

Correct answer:

No, the diameter of the turning circle would be almost the same.

Your Answer:

Yes, it will be much larger turning circle at half ahead.
34

Onboard the following message is received on the DSC controller: DOO: 245329000 CH16; S distress ack 244123000. What station sent the distress acknowledgement?

Your answer is correct:

245329000.
35

Who should undertake a CMID pre-inspection check? Select the ONE best answer.

Your answer is correct:

The management team on a vessel.
36

As per the IMDG Code, “Proper Shipping Name” is defined as:

Your answer is correct:

The name to be used in any documentation relating to the transportation of the dangerous substance, material or article, such as on forms, labels and placards.
37

Why should an offshore vessel inspection be based on the CMID? Select the ONE best answer.

Your answer is correct:

To ensure that the inspection is the same for all similar vessels.
38

Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of a survival craft corresponds to present SOLAS regulations? Each survival craft shall be stowed:

Your answer is correct:

In a secure and sheltered position and protected from damage by fire or explosion.
39

A member of the bridge team has just seen a person fall overboard. Which of the following manoeuvres is the most appropriate to assist with a rescue?

Your answer is correct:

Direct turn.
40

What is the purpose of having an FMEA proving trial undertaken on a DP vessel?

Correct answer:

To confirm the predictions in the FMEA report.

Your Answer:

To see how well the vessel can hold position.
41

Which of the following requirements regarding on board stability data corresponds to present regulations? (NSCL 4/12.1).

Your answer is correct:

A calculation example showing the use of “KG” limitation curves.
42

Where several rescue units are engaged in a search and rescue operation, one of them may be designated as the On-Scene Coordinator (OSC). Which of the following describes how this appointment will be made?

Your answer is correct:

The OSC will always be designated by the Search and Rescue Mission Coordinator.
43

Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-saving appliances corresponds to present regulations?

Your answer is correct:

All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made of non-combustible or fire retardant material.
44

On area A4 the function “Transmission of ship to shore distress alerts” is mainly based on:

Correct answer:

The use of HF DSC and COSPAS SARSAT Epirbs.

Your Answer:

The use of VHF DSC and VHF Epirbs.
45

According to Rule 24 of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions and the illustrated lights, how long is the tow likely to be?

Your answer is correct:

It exceeds 200 metres.
46

On a platform supply vessel, how are the risks associated with the dry bulk system controlled?

Your answer is correct:

By requiring crew to always follow operating procedures.
47

As per the IMDG Code, “Marine Pollutant” is defined as:

Your answer is correct:

A substance which is subject to the provisions of Annex III of MARPOL.
48

In area A1 the function “Reception of shore to ship distress alerts” is mainly based on”:

Your answer is correct:

The use of VHF DSC.
49

Which option best describes the purpose of having an FMEA completed for a DP vessel?

Your answer is correct:

So that when failure occurs, the vessel position is maintained.
50

Which organisation produces the Common Marine Inspection Document used for offshore vessel inspection? Select ONE answer.

Your answer is correct:

The International Marine Contractors Association.
51

As per IMDG Code, the term “separated from” can be defined as:

Correct answer:

In different compartments or holds when stowed “under deck”. Provided an intervening deck is resistant to fire and liquid, a vertical separation may be accepted as equivalent. For “on deck” stowage, this segregation means a distance of at least 6 metres.

Your Answer:

With an intervening compartment, being both a vertical and horizontal separation. Provided an intervening deck is resistant to liquid and fire, a vertical separation of 6 metres is acceptable. For “on deck” stowage, this segregation means a distance of at least 12 metres irrespective of compartment divisions.
52

On-board training in the use of davit-launched liferafts (including inflation and lowering whenever practicable) must take place:

Correct answer:

Every 4 months.

Your Answer:

Every month.
53

Who is responsible for ensuring your ship completes a security assessment?

Your answer is correct:

Company Security Officer.
54

Which option correctly completes the following statement? A failure modes and effects analysis (FMEA) is…

Your answer is correct:

A deductive prediction of failure.
55

Which organisation verifies the computational results and stored ship data used by the stability program loaded on a vessel’s computer?

Your answer is correct:

The Classification Society.
56

Which option best describes the purpose of having an FMEA completed for a DP vessel?

Your answer is correct:

So that when failure occurs, the vessel position is maintained.
57

What is the main purpose of an offshore vessel inspection using CMID? Select the ONE best answer.

Your answer is correct:

To confirm that a vessel is fit for purpose.
58

What is usually the effect on G when the ship is damaged with water ingress?

Correct answer:

It is unchanged.

Your Answer:

It lowers.
59

Under what convention is the master to ensure that a ship is seaworthy and in a fit state to safely carry a shipper’s cargo?

Your answer is correct:

The Hague-Visby Rules.
60

What is SITREP an abbreviation for:

Your answer is correct:

Situation Report.
61

How can an ARPA best assist the bridge team to steer a suitable course to make good the entrance to a channel?

Your answer is correct:

Alter course so that own-ships ground stabilised true vector passes through the entrance to the channel.
62

The transmitting receiving method, when both stations can transmit and receive at the same time is called:

Your answer is correct:

Duplex.
63

Which of the following is the correct minimum carriage requirement for a ship of more than 300 gross tons and operating in area A1:

Your answer is correct:

1 VHF RT + DSC + DSC watch receiver – 1 or 2 SART – 1 NAVTEX or 1 EGC receiver- 2 or 3 VHF portable – 1 EPIRB.
64

Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of life-saving appliances correspond to present regulations?

Your answer is correct:

Instructions for onboard maintenance of life-saving appliances in accordance with the regulations shall be provided.
65

If for some reason a vessel does not comply with a Classification Society’s requirements, what can a surveyor issue to the vessel enabling it to sail to the next port or for a period of time?

Your answer is correct:

A Condition of Class.
66

By FleetNET communication is understood:

Your answer is correct:

An EGG-message destined for ships with the same group call number.
67

Select the ONE answer which completes the following statement correctly. High priority safety findings during an OVID inspection:

Your answer is correct:

Need to be addressed immediately by onboard staff.
68

Whether or not the NAVTEX is functioning properly, can be checked using:

Correct answer:

A testing program built in for this purpose.

Your Answer:

A compulsory built-in alarm for defects.
69

Non distress calls on 2 182 kHz and VHF channel 16 should not exceed:

Your answer is correct:

1 minute.
70

On area A4 the function “Transmission and reception of signals for locating” is mainly based on:

Your answer is correct:

The use of SART transponders.
71

As per IMDG Code, the term ‘separated from” can be defined as:

Correct answer:

In different compartments or holds when stowed “under deck”. Provided an intervening deck is resistant to fire and liquid, a vertical separation may be accepted as equivalent. For “on deck” stowage, this segregation means a distance of at least 6 metres.

Your Answer:

With an intervening compartment , being both a vertical and horizontal separation. Provided an intervening deck is resistant to liquid and fire, a vertical separation of 6 metres is acceptable. For “on deck” stowage, this segregation means a distance of at least 12 metres irrespective of compartment divisions.
72

A SART is used by a vessel in distress. This SART is seen on the screen of a:

Your answer is correct:

3 cm radar.
73

If the shipper wishes to ensure that a vessel or her operators will not be held responsible for any damage that may arise from the carrier issuing a clean Bill of Lading,even though the Mate’s receipt is marked as “unclean”, such a document is called the:

Your answer is correct:

A Letter of Indemnity.
74

For calling a coast-station by VHF one should preferably use:

Your answer is correct:

A working channel of the nearest shore-station of that coast-station.
75

A battery of 24 Volt supplies during 10 hours a current of 6 ampere. What is the capacity supplied:

Your answer is correct:

60 Ah.
76

Which of the following duties shall be included in the “muster list” as being assigned to crewmembers in relation to passengers?

Your answer is correct:

Assembling passengers at muster station.
77

Which option best completes the following statement? The version of the IHO presentation library on the ECDIS is important because…

Your answer is correct:

If it is not the latest version, the ECDIS will not be compliant.
78

Which option correctly completes the following statement? A failure modes and effects analysis (FMEA) is:

Your answer is correct:

A deductive prediction of failure.
79

Which PPM is allowed for discharging of “Bilge Water” overboard?

Your answer is correct:

15 PPM.
80

Which of the following requirements regarding life-buoys correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/7.1).

Correct answer:

Not less than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be provided with self-ignighting lights.

Your Answer:

At least one lifebuoy with self-activating smoke shall be placed within the vicinity of the stern.
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