Тест по Deck department, Management level, Bulk Carrier (CES v6.0)

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Right answers:
1

Where is the Safety Certificates for ships to be kept?

Your answer is correct:

In the Captain’s office.
2

According to Rule 26 of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions and the illustrated lights, what type of vessels are they?

Correct answer:

These are two vessels engaged in fishing (pair trawling), showing the additional volutary signals for hauling nets.

Your Answer:

There are two vessels engaged in fishing (pair trawling), showing the additional voluntary signals for shooting nets.
3

Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in the event of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama Canal?

Your answer is correct:

The Panama Canal Authority.
4

For how long time must the printout from the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) be retained onboard?

Your answer is correct:

3 years.
5

What does the term OIL mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations?

Your answer is correct:

All of the mentioned.
6

Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel’s structural strength?

Your answer is correct:

The Master.
7

The portable walkie talkies required to be carried by GMDSS regulations should have which channels as a minimum?

Your answer is correct:

Channels 6, 13 & 16.
8

What sound signal can be made when nearing a bend in a river, with the view around the bend obscured by an intervening obstruction?

Your answer is correct:

One prolonged blast.
9

Which special regulations cover transportation of grain on a Bulk Carrier?

Your answer is correct:

IMO Grain Rules.
10

What is the name of the reference manual, jointly produced by the International Maritime Organization and the International Civil Aviation Authority, which currently outlines the organization and management of search and rescue activities at sea?

Your answer is correct:

The International Aeronautical and Maritime Search and Rescue (IAMSAR) Manual.
11

Your watchkeeper has just informed you that the vessel has collided with a sailing vessel. What action should be taken?

Your answer is correct:

Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors.
12

MARPOL – Annex IV. Your ship has in operation an approved sewage treatment plant certified by the Administration. During discharge, while vessel is awaiting pilot off Cape Henry, USA, the surrounding water is discoloured. What kind of action would be appropriate to take?

Your answer is correct:

Stop discharge.
13

MARPOL – Annex IV. Your ship has in operation an approved sewage treatment plant certified by the Administration. During discharge, while vessel is awaiting pilot off Cape Henry, USA, the surrounding water is discoloured. What kind of action would be appropriate to take?

Your answer is correct:

All of the suggested answers.
14

What are the main advantages to the Navstar, Glonas and Galileo satellite navigation systems?

Your answer is correct:

These satellite systems give world-wide coverage 24 hours a day.
15

To inform ship of coast-stations messages, coast-stations give at fixed times:

Correct answer:

A traffic list with the call-sign of the ships involved in alphabetical numerical sequence.

Your Answer:

A list of the official identification numbers, for example the Maritime Mobile Service Indentity (MMSI).
16

If a coast-station doesn’t answer a call on VHF working channel or doesn’t send a reply signal:

Your answer is correct:

You must call on another working channel.
17

Regular “updating” of a ships position in an Inmarsat-C installation is necessary:

Your answer is correct:

To have the correct position in case of accidents.
18

On board a DSC-call is to be made in case of an OBS. Choose the category:

Correct answer:

Routine.

Your Answer:

Safety.
19

On board they want to make a DSC-call with a foreign coast-station. It is an urgent call. Preferably choose:

Correct answer:

The national DSC-call frequencies of the coast-station concerned.

Your Answer:

The international DSC-distress frequencies.
20

Silencing by a station, not in charge of the distress-traffic, is done as follows:

Your answer is correct:

Seelonce Distress.
21

To receive distress alerting and MSI via an Inmarsat-C set vessels must have:

Your answer is correct:

SES or an EGC receiver.
22

The DSC-controller display the following: DOO: 244562000 CH16; S distress sinking After receiving this DSC message the following is done immediately:

Your answer is correct:

Listen out on VHF channel 16.
23

When onboard channel 16 is used for a shore radio-connection, you always work:

Correct answer:

Simplex.

Your Answer:

Duplex.
24

The capacity of a battery is expressed in:

Your answer is correct:

Ampere × hours.
25

Which class of emission is used for VHF DSC transmissions?

Correct answer:

G2B.

Your Answer:

J2B.
26

For how long time should a VHF survival craft transceiver be able to operate on its batteries?

Your answer is correct:

8 hours.
27

Messages sent via Inmarsat-C are charged:

Correct answer:

On the number of kilobits of information transmitted per block of 256 bits.

Your Answer:

On the basis of a three minute minimum charge with one minute incremental steps.
28

The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be spaced apart by a distance of:

Correct answer:

Equally spaced, not less than 300 mm or more than 380 mm.

Your Answer:

Equally spaced, not less than 200 mm or more than 280 mm.
29

A hand flare must have a burning period of at least:

Your answer is correct:

1 min.
30

Give the meaning of the following symbol:

Your answer is correct:

Line throwing appliance.
31

On-board training in the use of davit-launched liferafts (including inflation and lowering whenever practicable) must take place:

Your answer is correct:

Every 4 months.
32

With respect to the ISM, what training in addition to lifeboat and fire drills must be carried out?

Your answer is correct:

Familiarization, and other drills identified as necessary by the ship.
33

Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of life-saving appliances correspond to present regulations?

Correct answer:

Instructions for onboard maintenance of life-saving appliances in accordance with the regulations shall be provided.

Your Answer:

Maintenance and repair of all life saving equipments shall be carried out by the certified ship staff only.
34

Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of a survival craft corresponds to present SOLAS regulations? Each survival craft shall be stowed:

Correct answer:

In a secure and sheltered position and protected from damage by fire or explosion.

Your Answer:

Wherever space is available.
35

Which one of the following items has to be included in an abandon ship drill according to SOLAS regulations?

Correct answer:

Checking that life-jackets are correctly donned.

Your Answer:

Starting and operating radio life-saving appliances.
36

Your vessel is involved in a collision with another vessel. What should you as Master tell the Master on the other vessel?

Your answer is correct:

Name; Port of registry; Port of destination of your vessel.
37

Your vessel has been involved in a collision, and at first opportunity a lot of people from outsides parties are asking questions. What shall you tell them?

Your answer is correct:

Do not reply to any questions from outside parties, except the Solicitor appointed your company.
38

What percentage of the ship’s stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3?

Your answer is correct:

100 % of the ship’s stores are required to be inspected at Security Level 3.
39

Which type of profiling is used to obtain information about rival companies and their employees?

Correct answer:

Industrial.

Your Answer:

Criminal.
40

Why is air draught an important consideration when loading bulk cargoes on Bulk Carriers?

Your answer is correct:

Because of movement of the bulk cargo loader or unloaders.
41

Why do structural steel products often shift or collapse in a bulk carrier’s cargo holds?

Correct answer:

Because the irregular shape of the cargo holds results in void spaces.

Your Answer:

Because of dunnage, provided at every tier of the cargo, not having been aligned.
42

What must be specified when ordering gas detection equipment when used in association with bulk carriers?

Correct answer:

That the instrument is suited for its purpose of application.

Your Answer:

That the instrument can measure methane and hydrogen when used in low-oxygen atmospheres.
43

How are cargoes on self-unloading bulk carriers fed to the vessel’s conveyor belts during discharge?

Correct answer:

Via hydraulically-operated hopper gates at the bottom of each hold.

Your Answer:

By gravity through mechanical hopper gates at the bottom of each hold.
44

When loading a bulk cargo of Coal the ship must be fitted with appropriate instruments to measure the concentration of what gases within the cargo space?

Your answer is correct:

The gases specified in all of these answers.
45

In a single side skin bulk carrier of 155 m in length constructed in 2 000 and carrying cargo of density 1 010 kg/cu. m., which cargo hold should be able to withstand flooding?

Your answer is correct:

Any cargo hold.
46

If the speed of a vessel through the water is HALVED, how will this effect squat?

Your answer is correct:

The squat effect will be reduced to a quarter of its original value.
47

What immediate action should be taken if a ship unexpectedly runs aground and stops?

Correct answer:

Stop engines and call the Master.

Your Answer:

Stop engines and immediately request “Full Astern”.
48

As per the IMDG Code, “Marine Pollutant” is defined as:

Correct answer:

A substance which is subject to the provisions of Annex III of MARPOL 73/78 as amended.

Your Answer:

Any substance which is deemed hazardous to the marine environment.
49

DG placards shall be located on a freight container:

Your answer is correct:

One on each end and one on each side.
50

If the shipper wishes to ensure that a vessel or her operators will not be held responsible for any damage that may arise from the carrier issuing a clean Bill of Lading, even though the Mate’s receipt is marked as “unclean”, such a document is called the:

Your answer is correct:

A Letter of Indemnity.
51

When conducting a risk assessment for a shipboard work activity, the two elements to be considered are:

Your answer is correct:

The potential severity of harm and the likelihood that harm will occur.
52

With a davit launched lifeboat, what weight is required by SOLAS regulations to be used for the 5 yearly test of the davit and brake system?

Your answer is correct:

1,1 times the total weight of the lifeboat when loaded with its full complement of persons and equipment.
53

Which organisation verifies the computational results and stored ship data used by the stability program loaded on a vessel’s computer?

Your answer is correct:

The Classification Society.
54

Onboard training should be organised in such a way that:

Correct answer:

It is an integral part of the overall training plan.

Your Answer:

Each crew member is trained individually.
55

It is the Master’s responsibility to ensure that:

Correct answer:

Concerned personnel carry out the on-board training programme effectively.

Your Answer:

All information regarding the onboard training is given to the ship manager.
56

What type of dynamic forces may cause indent in plating on forecastle deck and main deck in way of pillars inside forecastle?

Correct answer:

Pressure forces caused by green water on deck.

Your Answer:

Impact pressure forces in way of abrupt or flared bow.
57

What does the IMSBC Code emphasise with reference to the exposure of personal to the dust created when carrying some bulk cargoes?

Correct answer:

A high standard of personal hygiene.

Your Answer:

The responsibility of the Master to ensure that staff are wearing the correct clothing.
58

A bulk coal cargo is to be loaded and the moisture content is declared as 19; the transportable moisture limit of the cargo is declared as 15, what should the Master do?

Your answer is correct:

Refuse to load the cargo unless the vessel is specially designed for the carriage of cargo which may liquefy.
59

A bulk cargo has a stowage factor (SF) of 1,50 cubic metres per metric tonne (m3/mt). If 1 000 tonnes are to be loaded what volume will this cargo occupy?

Your answer is correct:

1 500 cubic metres (m3).
60

A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo such as iron ore concentrate; what would be the possible stability conditions produced?

Correct answer:

The vessel will normally have a large intact metacentric height (GM) and have a fast roll period.

Your Answer:

The vessel will normally have a small intact metacentric height metacentric height (GM) and have a slow roll period.
61

A cargo hatch cover seal on a Bulk Carrier is known to be damaged and not weather tight prior to sailing; what is the legal significance of this situation?

Your answer is correct:

The vessel may well be judged to be un-seaworthy; this could invalidate some certification and hull and machinery insurance.
62

A bulk carrier is to carry a full deck cargo of packaged timber; to what regulations must the vessel comply?

Your answer is correct:

IMO Code of Practice for the carriage of Timber Deck cargoes.
63

A bulk cargo vessel is found to be 4,0 centimetres over her maximum loadline draft after loading; what should be the actions of the master?

Your answer is correct:

Order the pumping out of fresh water or ballast until the maximum allowed loadline is achieved.
64

Large bulk carriers are more likely to suffer from cracks in structure in which of the following parts of the vessel?

Correct answer:

Around hatch corners and upper ballast tanks amidships.

Your Answer:

In after peak area.
65

Which of the following would normally only be found in cargo holds which can also be used for ballast on a Bulk Carrier?

Your answer is correct:

Sacrificial anodes and water resistant epoxy paint coatings.
66

Once the Safety Management System is verified and working effectively, what document is issued to the ship?

Your answer is correct:

The Safety Management Certificate.
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